I'm not suggesting anything because I don't have enough information.  I was trying to fathom out the arguments.  As I said earlier, in this argument percecption and quantifiable reaction are often confused which makes any logical conclusion difficult.

If I read your comments correctly you are saying if cable a) is made the same way as cable b) there will be no difference in the the measured outcome.  If however cable b) is designed to limit frequency response or similar then there may be a measurable difference.  If that premise is correct then we have to ask ourselves

a) are all cables built to give exactly the same level of signal

b) can some form of altering the frequency response be perceived as beneficial.

Whether some listeners perceive the difference and some don't is surely irrelevant as human perception is always highly sunjective and unreliable.

FWIW I've heard differences between cables but they have never been enough for me to be convinced of their worth.  Nor do I have enough physics to explain what is happening.